Re: franny & zooey

This is all REALLY interesting and pretty plausible. See, I think you can
say that Salinger "intended" the Franny character in "Zooey" to be
understood as the same Franny in "Franny" AFTER he wrote "Zooey," but not at
the time he wrote "Franny" -- but, of course, this requires study outside
the texts themselves -- we need to look at the texts closely _within the
context of their publishing history_.

So which authorial intent is correct? What Salinger intended when he wrote
"Franny," or how he intended "Franny" to be understood when he wrote
"Zooey"? You can't have both in this case.

Jim

Cecilia Baader wrote:

> --- m e g h a n <bedroomdancing@hotmail.com> wrote:
> > ... it doesn't mean that the Franny in "Franny" and the
> > Franny in "Zooey" are the same person. I was just wondering what
> > everyone else's opinions are on this subject.
>
> I think you'll find the best explanation of this theory in John Updike's
> original review of *Franny and Zooey*:
>
> http://www.morrill.org/books/updikeonsalinger.shtml
>
> Hope this helps,
> Cecilia.
>
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Received on Tue Oct 29 11:05:50 2002