AntiUtopia wrote: > We have pretty good documentation for textual claims of the resurrection, but > pretty spurious > documentation for textual claims of the homosexuality of Christ. Well you also don't need a weatherman to know which way the wind blows. (Reminds me of how much fans of INXS kept dwelling on why Michael Hutchence would commit suicide when in fact, given how his body was found, it obviously was simply autoerotic asphyxiation.) Given the amount of historical research we have on the Guy (and you can throw in the religious bias as well, too), what else are you going to make of "the first Romantic in human history," as Oscar Wilde referred to him as. And this is where you get into the crux of just what exactly constitutes a gay man, or a bisexual man for that matter. As I've said before, I think homosexuality has a lot more to do with "homo" than it does "sexual," and I think bisexuality has a lot more to do with "bicameral" than "sexual" also. Christ acknowledged his anima and fully integrated it into his persona making him a very psychologically balanced individual, and he was pretty much the world's first most high-profile feminine man who acknowledged love for his fellow MAN rather than simply wanting to compete with him for a job/girlfriend/whatever in a Darwinistic way. (I both defend Darwin AND the teachings of Christ. So I'm not what you'd consider a card-carrying "Christian.") And his legacy is nothing but what has been stereotyped as "feminine" attributes throughout time: Love, compassion, sensitivity et al.... Kazantzakis' treatment of the question of Christ providing the logical extension to the question in The Last Temptation of Christ: WHAT would have happened had he married and settled down, rather than hanging out with societies outcasts? Would he have committed suicide like Seymour? And why didn't Seymour and Muriel produce progeny before he died? It's just as reckless to suggest that Christ was a heterosexual as it is to suggest that he was a homosexual, because outside of palling around with Mary Magdalene there really IS no evidence, so the point is moot. (Had they produced progeny would have helped the evidence needed that he was heterosexual, but not really, because history is littered with gay men who married and had children. And this is where you get deeper into the Holy Blood/Holy Grail territory as far as the secrets and legends of historical evidence is concerned.) Asexual celibacy is probably more accurate, because he had studied enough of the Eastern masters to realize that "desire" is what needs to be overcome to avoid suffering. And when you take sexuality out of the equation of your relationships with others, be they male OR female, you suddenly free yourself to, yes, be able to "love" EITHER gender. What isn't moot is the fact that he demonstrated attributes 2000 years ago which only until the last hundred or so years have been acknowledged as necessary psychologically healthy ways for males to interact with other males and females too. This is why Christ as an icon would not/has not ever seriously been discussed as having been female. His significance is pretty much based on his gender and the "expectations" of his gender then, as it is still now, and wouldn't have had the impact had he been female. Malcolm