Subject: Re: nice detail, robbie...
From: Jim Rovira (jrovira@drew.edu)
Date: Tue Jul 09 2002 - 09:39:26 EDT
Eh...I think you're overestimating the illiteracy of Jesus' crowd (any male
of any significance was taught to read Hebrew, I believe), and ignoring how
the Hebrew Scriptures were used in the NT. I think it's significant that
Christ referred to "the" law and "the" prophets -- that was not an unusal
division. It could be argued, of course, that the use of the Hebrew
Scriptures by the NT writers contributed to the NT canon, but a Jewish
canon arose at least eventually that had amazing parallels to the Christian
canon -- I find it difficult to believe that these two traditions developed
a very similar canon separately after the time of Christ, or that either
was dependent upon the other after the time of Christ. It makes more sense
to me to think they were both drawing upon a root tradition before the time
of Christ.
I wonder if the books of Maccabees and other apocryphal books make
reference to some kind of canon?
RE: the Septuagint, you're probably more up on this than I am. I have a
grammar of the Sept. in Greek on my shelf, but haven't picked it up in a
long, long time. I'll check it out.
heh...you're making me pick up my reference books again :). Eventually :).
Jim
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